[PDF&VCE] New Released Cisco 400-101 Exam Questions From Cisco Exam Center (651-675)

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Following questions and answers are all new published by Cisco Official Exam Center: http://www.lead2pass.com/400-101.html

Which three features does GETVPN support to improve deployment and scalability? (Choose three.)

A.    configuration of multiple key servers to work cooperatively
B.    allowing traffic to be discarded until a group member registers successfully
C.    local exceptions in the traffic classification ACL
D.    GDOI protocol configuration between group members and the key server
E.    redundant IPsec tunnels between group members and the key server
F.    redundant multicast replication streaming through the use of a bypass tunnel

Answer: ABC

Refer to the exhibit. Which two configuration changes enable you to log in to the router? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure a user name and password on the device.
B.    Modify the default login authentication group to use the terminal line password.
C.    Remove the terminal line password on the console line.
D.    Modify the terminal lines to include transport input none.
E.    Configure the terminal lines to use the local user database.

Answer: AB

Refer to the exhibit. Which log levels are enabled for the console?

A.    informational only
B.    informational and debugging
C.    informational, debugging, notifications, warnings, errors, critical, alerts, and emergencies
D.    informational, notifications, warnings, errors, critical, alerts, and emergencies

Answer: D

External EIGRP route exchange on routers R1 and R2 was failing because the routers had duplicate router IDs. You changed the eigrp router-id command on R1, but the problem persists. Which additional action must you take to enable the routers to exchange routes?

A.    Change the corresponding loopback address.
B.    Change the router ID on R2.
C.    Reset the EIGRP neighbor relationship.
D.    Clear the EIGRP process.

Answer: D

Which two BGP path attributes are visible in Wireshark? (Choose two.)

A.    weight
B.    AS path
C.    local preference
D.    route maps

Answer: BC

Refer to the exhibit. If a Layer 3 switch running OSPF in a VRF-lite configuration reports this error, which action can you take to correct the problem?

A.    Set mls cef maximum-routes in the global configuration.
B.    Add the vrf-lite capability to the OSPF configuration.
C.    Upgrade the Layer 3 switch to a model that can support more routes.
D.    Configure the control plane with a larger memory allocation to support the Cisco Express Forwarding Information Base.

Answer: A

Which statement describes the effect of the configuration line redistribute maximum-prefix 1500 90 withdraw?

A.    After the 1500th route is redistributed, a warning is posted in the log file and 90 more routes are redistributed before further routes are discarded.
B.    After the 1350th route is redistributed, a warning is posted in the log file until the 1500th route is redistributed, and then further routes are discarded.
C.    After the 1500th route is redistributed, further routes are discarded only if the CPU is above 90%.
D.    The routing protocol receives 1500 routes. After the routing process has redistributed 90% of the routes, the process supernets routes and injects a NULL route to prevent black-hole routing.

Answer: B

Which option is a correct match criteria for policy-based routing?

A.    length
B.    interface type
C.    interface
D.    cost

Answer: A

Refer to the exhibit. How many LSDBs will router A have?

A.    0
B.    1
C.    2
D.    3

Answer: D

Which EIGRP configuration results in subsecond failover outside of the basic routing protocol convergence?

A.    bfd all-interfaces
B.    timers active-time disabled
C.    timers active-time 1
D.    timers nsf route-hold 20

Answer: A

Which two options are requirements for Control-Plane Policing? (Choose two.)

A.    Cisco Express Forwarding must be enabled globally.
B.    Cisco Discovery Protocol must be disabled in the control plane.
C.    A crypto policy must be installed.
D.    A loopback address must be configured for device access.
E.    A class map must be configured to identify traffic.

Answer: AE

In the DiffServ model, which class represents the highest priority with the lowest drop probability?

A.    AF11
B.    AF13
C.    AF41
D.    AF43

Answer: C

Which two statements about GLBP are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Packets are forwarded by multiple routers that share one virtual IP address.
B.    The active router forwards packets received on one virtual IP and MAC address.
C.    The standby router forwards packets when the active router fails.
D.    Hosts on the network are configured with multiple gateways for load balancing.
E.    Routers in a GLBP group can share multiple virtual MAC addresses.

Answer: AE

Which trunking configuration between two Cisco switches can cause a security risk?

A.    configuring different native VLANs on the switches
B.    configuring different trunk modes on the switches
C.    configuring mismatched VLANs on the trunk
D.    disabling DTP on the trunk ports
E.    configuring incorrect channel-groups on the switches

Answer: A

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic from CE1 to CE2 is traveling through the core instead of through R1. All the PE routers have a similar configuration, and BGP peering and extended-community meshing are configured correctly.
Which configuration change routes the traffic through R1?


Answer: A

A floating static route appears in the routing table of an interface even when the interface is unusable.
Which action can you take to correct the problem?

A.    Remove the permanent option from the static route.
B.    Correct the administrative distance.
C.    Configure the floating static route to point to another route in the routing table.
D.    Correct the DHCP-provided route on the DHCP server.

Answer: A

Which two statements about redistribution are true? (Choose two.)

A.    EIGRP requires the route to have a default metric defined.
B.    EIGRP and OSPF use their router IDs to prevent loops.
C.    When OSPF is redistributed into IS-IS, the default metric must be configured under the IS-IS process.
D.    When traffic is redistributed into OSPF, the subnets command is needed to redistribute classful subnets.
E.    The default seed metric for OSPF redistributed routes is 30.

Answer: AB

Which LSA type is associated with the default route in a totally stubby area?

A.    interarea-prefix LSA for ABRs (Type 3)
B.    autonomous system external LSA (Type 5)
C.    router LSA (Type 1)
D.    interarea-router LSAs for ASBRs (Type 4)

Answer: A

Which statement about NAT64 is true?

A.    NAT64 provides address family translation and translates IPv4 to IPv6 and IPv6 to IPv4.
B.    NAT64 provides address family translation and can translate only IPv6 to IPv4.
C.    NAT64 should be considered as a permanent solution.
D.    NAT64 requires the use of DNS64.

Answer: A

Which two statements about BGP loop prevention are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Advertisements from PE routers with per-neighbor SOO configured include a Site of Origin value that is equal to the configured value of the BGP peering.
B.    If the configured Site of Origin value of a BGP peering is equal to the Site of Origin value on a route it receives, route advertisement is blocked to prevent a route loop.
C.    AS-override aids BGP loop prevention, but alternate loop prevention mechanisms are also necessary.
D.    Advertisements from the neighbors a BGP peering include a Site of Origin value that is separate from the configured value of the BGP peering.
E.    If the configured Site of Origin value of a BGP peering is greater than the Site of Origin value on a route it receives, route advertisement is blocked to prevent a route loop.
F.    If the configured Site of Origin value of a BGP peering is equal to the Site of Origin value on a route it receives, route advertisement is permitted.

Answer: AB

Which option is the default point of insertion for the BGP cost community?

A.    before best path calculation
B.    after best path calculation
C.    after the IGP metric comparison
D.    after the router ID comparison

Answer: C

Refer to the exhibit. Which BGP feature allows R1 to send R2 a list of prefixes that R2 is prevented from advertising to R1?

A.    route refresh
B.    Prefix-Based Outbound Route Filtering
C.    distribute lists
D.    prefix lists

Answer: B

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of BGP peer is

A.    route reflector client
B.    iBGP
C.    confederation
D.    VPNv4

Answer: C

Which option describes what the default RT filter indicates when you implement the BGP RT constrained route distribution feature?

A.    A peer receives only a default route for each VRF.
B.    A peer receives all routes, regardless of the RT value.
C.    A peer receives routes only for RTs that are used on that router.
D.    A peer receives no routes, regardless of the RT value.

Answer: B

Refer to the exhibit. Which BGP feature is being used?

A.    fast session deactivation
B.    graceful restart
C.    PIC
D.    graceful shutdown

Answer: A

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